2026 New CPHIMS Dumps - Real HIMSS Exam Questions
Dependable CPHIMS Exam Dumps to Become HIMSS Certified
NEW QUESTION # 48
A system selection committee devised a methodology for assigning priorities to requirements as follows:
* Priority requirements: 5 points
* Desired requirements: 3 points
* Optional requirements: 1 point
Four vendor responses to the request for proposal are summarized in the table. Which vendor should be selected?
- A. Vendor 1.
- B. Vendor 3.
- C. Vendor 4.
- D. Vendor 2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To determine the correct vendor, a weighted scoring methodology must be applied based on the assigned point values. The requirements and vendor responses can be calculated as follows:
* Requirement 1 (Optional - 1 point): Vendor 1 = Present (1), Vendor 2 = 0, Vendor 3 = 1, Vendor 4 =
1
* Requirement 2 (Optional - 1 point): Vendor 1 = 0, Vendor 2 = 1, Vendor 3 = 0, Vendor 4 = 1
* Requirement 3 (Priority - 5 points): Vendor 1 = 5, Vendor 2 = 0, Vendor 3 = 0, Vendor 4 = 0
* Requirement 4 (Desired - 3 points): Vendor 1 = 0, Vendor 2 = 3, Vendor 3 = 3, Vendor 4 = 3 Now summing totals:
* Vendor 1: 1 + 0 + 5 + 0 = 6 points
* Vendor 2: 0 + 1 + 0 + 3 = 4 points
* Vendor 3: 1 + 0 + 0 + 3 = 4 points
* Vendor 4: 1 + 1 + 0 + 3 = 5 points
Vendor 1 receives the highest total score. Importantly, Vendor 1 is the only vendor meeting the priority requirement , which carries the greatest weight (5 points). In structured healthcare IT procurement and system selection processes, weighted scoring models ensure that critical requirements drive objective vendor evaluation. Therefore, based on the defined scoring methodology, Vendor 1 should be selected.
NEW QUESTION # 49
How is system performance testing defined?
- A. System performance in accordance with end user requirements.
- B. System performance in accordance with defined system load performance standards.
- C. System performance in a production environment.
- D. System performance during heavy system load and network traffic.
Answer: B
Explanation:
System performance testing is the structured evaluation of how well an application or infrastructure performs against predefined, measurable performance criteria under specified workload conditions. In healthcare technology environments, these criteria typically include response time, throughput (transactions per second), concurrent user capacity, CPU/memory utilization, database performance, and interface/message processing times-benchmarked against agreed standards such as "95% of chart lookups complete within X seconds with Y concurrent users." That is why the best definition is performance "in accordance with defined system load performance standards." Option A describes stress testing more specifically, which focuses on behavior under extreme or peak loads (often beyond expected capacity) to identify breaking points and failure modes. Option C aligns with user acceptance testing (UAT) , which validates the solution meets workflow and functional expectations from end users, not necessarily technical performance benchmarks. Option D suggests testing in production, which may occur as monitoring or controlled validation, but performance testing is typically executed in a dedicated test environment that mirrors production so results are repeatable and risk is minimized. For EHRs and clinical systems, proper performance testing is essential to prevent delays that can disrupt care delivery and patient safety.
NEW QUESTION # 50
How can training staff's effectiveness be best improved?
- A. Provide the design and solution documents to the training team immediately after the contract is executed.
- B. Train the trainers on the system functions.
- C. Empower trainers to participate in design and user acceptance testing and develop the curriculum in the process.
- D. Provide training before go-live, once testing is completed and the product is ready to ship.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Training staff are most effective when they are integrated early into the implementation lifecycle- particularly during design and user acceptance testing (UAT) -because this gives them deep, practical understanding of the new workflows, decisions, and real-world usability issues that end users will face. By participating in design sessions, trainers learn the intended future-state processes, policy choices (e.g., documentation standards, order set governance), and role-based responsibilities. Through UAT involvement, trainers observe where users struggle, what steps are error-prone, which screens are confusing, and which workflow workarounds emerge. That insight allows trainers to build targeted curriculum, scenarios, and tip sheets that directly address high-risk tasks and common points of failure-improving adoption, reducing errors, and shortening the productivity dip at go-live.
Option B delays trainer readiness until late, limiting time to develop scenario-based training and incorporate UAT lessons learned. Option C (receiving documents) helps but is insufficient because documents rarely capture the nuanced, operational "how work really happens" details. Option D (training trainers on functions) is necessary but not sufficient; effective healthcare IT training must be workflow- and role-based , not only feature-based. Hence, early empowerment and participation (A) best improves training effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Data mining
- A. reveals trends, patterns, and relationships that might otherwise have gone undetected.
- B. uses the scientific method to predict future outcomes.
- C. creates a simulation model of a working process or function.
- D. enables the storage of vast amounts of dissimilar data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data mining refers to the analytical process of examining large datasets to discover hidden patterns, correlations, trends, and relationships that are not immediately apparent through routine reporting. In healthcare information and systems management, data mining plays a critical role in transforming raw clinical, financial, operational, and administrative data into actionable knowledge. Using statistical algorithms, machine learning techniques, clustering, classification, association rule discovery, and predictive modeling, healthcare organizations can uncover insights such as risk factors for readmissions, patterns of medication utilization, disease prevalence trends, fraud detection indicators, and workflow inefficiencies.
Option A describes simulation modeling, which is a different analytical method used to replicate processes for testing scenarios. Option B refers to data warehousing or database management systems, which focus on storage rather than analysis. Option C more closely aligns with predictive analytics or formal research methodology, not specifically data mining itself.
Within healthcare IT governance and HIMSS-aligned informatics principles, data mining supports evidence- based decision-making, quality improvement initiatives, population health management, and strategic planning. By revealing previously undetected relationships in large datasets, healthcare leaders can improve patient outcomes, enhance operational efficiency, reduce costs, and support regulatory reporting requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 52
An IT director is in negotiations to purchase a new system. Which of the following is the BEST document to ensure the product and services are delivered?
- A. Statement of work.
- B. Project charter.
- C. Request for proposal.
- D. Purchase order.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Statement of Work (SOW) is the best document to ensure a vendor delivers the promised product and services because it defines, in enforceable detail, what will be delivered, how it will be delivered, when it will be delivered, and how delivery will be validated . In healthcare IT procurements, a strong SOW typically includes scope and deliverables (software modules, interfaces, conversion, training), roles and responsibilities, timelines and milestones, testing requirements, acceptance criteria, service levels, security/privacy obligations, documentation, and support arrangements. It also specifies assumptions, constraints, change- control processes, and often links payments to measurable deliverables-creating accountability and reducing ambiguity during implementation.
An RFP is used earlier to solicit vendor proposals and compare solutions; it helps select a vendor but does not by itself ensure delivery. A purchase order authorizes purchase and references quantities and pricing, but it usually lacks the implementation detail and acceptance criteria needed to manage complex clinical system deployments. A project charter authorizes the project internally by defining objectives, governance, and high- level scope, but it is not the primary vendor-delivery control instrument. Therefore, the SOW is the most effective procurement artifact for ensuring that both the technology and the associated professional services are delivered as agreed.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a standard for clinical healthcare terminology for electronic health records (EHR)?
- A. SNOMED.
- B. HL7.
- C. DICOM.
- D. SSAE 16.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SNOMED (commonly implemented as SNOMED CT) is a widely adopted standard clinical terminology used in EHRs to represent patient problems, diagnoses, findings, procedures, organisms, substances, and other clinical concepts in a consistent, computable way. In clinical informatics, terminology standards are essential because they allow clinicians to document care using structured concepts that support clinical decision support, quality measurement, analytics, population health reporting, and interoperability . When different clinicians or organizations use the same standardized clinical terms, the meaning is preserved and can be accurately interpreted by receiving systems, reducing ambiguity that often occurs with free-text documentation.
The other options are not clinical terminology standards. SSAE 16 relates to service organization controls reporting (an assurance/audit framework). DICOM is a standard for medical imaging data and related information exchange
NEW QUESTION # 54
Protocol and integration of an oncology Electronic Medical Record (EMR) with a hospital electronic health record system is an example of which of the following?
- A. Health Information Exchange.
- B. Patient portal.
- C. Telehealth.
- D. Interoperability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Integrating an oncology EMR with a hospital EHR using defined protocols is an example of interoperability because it focuses on the ability of two different health information systems to communicate, exchange data, and use the information that has been exchanged . In practice, oncology care often involves specialized workflows (chemotherapy ordering, regimen management, infusion documentation, staging, tumor markers) that may be supported by a dedicated oncology system. When that system is integrated with the enterprise EHR, key data such as medication orders, allergies, lab results, problem lists, care plans, and treatment summaries can flow between systems to support coordinated care, reduce duplicate entry, and improve safety (e.g., ensuring the hospital record reflects high-risk oncology medications and related monitoring requirements).
This scenario is not best described as Health Information Exchange (HIE) , which typically refers to exchanging health information across organizations or through regional/national exchange networks. It is also not telehealth , which is care delivery at a distance, nor a patient portal , which is a patient-facing access tool. The core concept here is system-to-system integration enabling data exchange and usability- therefore, interoperability is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A CIO is challenged with project requests exceeding the IT department's capability to execute. Which of the following approaches would BEST help stakeholders understand opportunities and limitations?
- A. Provide monthly briefings on high priority projects.
- B. Implement customer-led governance and prioritization processes.
- C. Prepare monthly technology briefings on emerging technologies.
- D. Initiate new charge-back cost allocation models.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When demand exceeds delivery capacity, the most effective leadership response is to create a transparent, stakeholder-driven governance and prioritization process . Implementing customer-led governance (e.g., an executive steering committee with clinical, operational, financial, and IT representation) establishes a shared method to evaluate requests against agreed criteria such as patient safety, regulatory need, strategic alignment, ROI/value, risk reduction, operational impact, and resource requirements. This helps stakeholders clearly see why some projects proceed while others are deferred, and it makes IT constraints (staffing, budget, vendor dependencies, change windows) visible and understood.
Monthly briefings on high-priority projects (B) improve communication but do not resolve the root problem- too many competing requests and no agreed mechanism to choose among them. Technology briefings (C) can educate leaders, yet they don't address capacity management or tradeoffs. Charge-back models (D) may influence demand by making costs explicit, but without governance they can create conflict, incentivize siloed decision-making, and still fail to align the portfolio with enterprise strategy and safety priorities.
Customer-led governance is therefore the best approach because it institutionalizes decision rights, prioritization discipline, and accountability , enabling stakeholders to understand both opportunities and limitations in a fair and consistent way.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A person who provides overall leadership in the ongoing development, implementation, advancement, and optimization of electronic information systems that impact patient care, and works in partnership with the organization's IT leadership to translate clinician requirements into specifications for clinical and research systems, is called the
- A. Chief Information Officer (CIO).
- B. Chief Medical Information Officer (CMIO).
- C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).
- D. Chief Medical Officer (CMO).
Answer: B
Explanation:
The role described aligns with the Chief Medical Information Officer (CMIO) because it centers on clinical leadership for health information systems and the translation of clinician needs into usable, safe, and effective technology. A CMIO is typically a physician leader (or medically trained leader) who bridges clinical operations and IT by guiding the design, build, implementation, and optimization of systems such as the EHR, CPOE, clinical documentation, decision support, and analytics that directly affect patient care and clinical outcomes. The CMIO champions clinician engagement, governance, workflow standardization, and adoption, ensuring that technology supports evidence-based practice, usability, and patient safety.
This differs from the CIO , whose scope is enterprise-wide IT strategy, infrastructure, security, budgets, vendor management, and overall information services-not specifically the translation of medical practice requirements into clinical system specifications. The CMO leads medical staff and clinical quality at the organizational level but is not primarily accountable for informatics system design and optimization. The CTO focuses on technology architecture and engineering, not clinical transformation. Therefore, the best match for a leader who partners with IT while driving clinical information systems advancement and optimization is the CMIO .
NEW QUESTION # 57
A project manager in a healthcare organization has been asked by the project team to solicit involvement of a physician in the next phase of a clinical systems implementation. Which of the following is the first step for the project manager to accomplish this?
- A. Request volunteers at the next medical staff meeting.
- B. Ask the Chief Medical Officer for candidate recommendations.
- C. Develop an incentive to attract candidates.
- D. Send an email throughout the organization to recruit volunteers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step should be to ask the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) for candidate recommendations because physician participation in clinical systems implementation is most effective when it is leadership-supported, appropriately vetted, and aligned with medical staff governance . The CMO (or equivalent physician executive leadership) understands physician leadership structures, department dynamics, credibility considerations, and who has the influence, availability, and interest to serve as a physician champion, subject matter expert, or governance representative. This approach also reinforces shared accountability: clinical transformation is not "an IT project," and engaging physician leadership early helps secure buy-in, clarify expectations for time commitment, and ensure representation reflects organizational priorities and patient safety needs.
The other options are less effective as a first action. A mass email (A) may produce volunteers, but not necessarily the right physician leader or specialty representation, and it can bypass medical staff leadership norms. Requesting volunteers at a medical staff meeting (C) is public and time-bound, and still may not yield a suitable, supported candidate. Developing incentives (B) may be helpful later for protected time or compensation, but selecting the right physician partner and sponsorship structure comes first. Therefore, engaging the CMO for recommendations is the best initial step.
NEW QUESTION # 58
To enhance patient safety, which of the following abbreviations should be eliminated when introducing or upgrading an Electronic Health Record (EHR)?
- A. hs.
- B. npo.
- C. prn.
- D. qd.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The abbreviation "qd" (intended to mean "every day") should be eliminated because it is well known to be error-prone and has been repeatedly associated with misinterpretation and serious medication dosing errors. In handwritten or poorly rendered text, "qd" can be mistaken for "q.i.d." (four times daily), which can lead to a fourfold dosing frequency error -a high-risk patient safety event. Because EHR implementations often standardize order sets, medication dictionaries, and clinical documentation templates, this is a key opportunity to remove unsafe abbreviations and replace them with fully spelled-out, unambiguous instructions (e.g.,
"daily").
In contrast, NPO ("nothing by mouth"), PRN ("as needed"), and HS ("at bedtime") are common clinical abbreviations that are generally understood and are not typically singled out in major "do-not-use" abbreviation lists in the same way "qd" is. Safety-focused informatics practice emphasizes embedding these standards directly into computerized provider order entry (CPOE) and order sentences so clinicians select clear, standardized terms instead of typing free-text abbreviations. Eliminating "qd" supports safer prescribing, reduces ambiguity across care teams, and strengthens medication safety during EHR go-lives and upgrades.
NEW QUESTION # 59
The MOST significant outcome of achieving interoperability of medical devices is
- A. patient safety.
- B. regulatory compliance.
- C. optimal workflow.
- D. reduced data errors.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most significant outcome of achieving interoperability of medical devices is patient safety . When devices such as infusion pumps, ventilators, cardiac monitors, and anesthesia machines are interoperable with clinical information systems (e.g., EHRs), data flows automatically and accurately between systems. This reduces the need for manual transcription of vital signs, medication rates, and device settings-thereby minimizing transcription errors, omissions, and delays in documentation.
While reduced data errors (option B) is a direct and measurable benefit, it ultimately supports the broader and more critical goal of protecting patients from harm. For example, real-time device integration allows clinicians to see accurate, up-to-date physiologic data, supports clinical decision support alerts (e.g., unsafe infusion parameters), and improves alarm management. These capabilities directly influence timely interventions and prevention of adverse events.
Optimal workflow (option A) is also improved through automation, and regulatory compliance (option C) may be facilitated through accurate documentation and audit trails; however, these are secondary benefits. In healthcare technology strategy and informatics practice, improvements are evaluated primarily by their impact on safety and quality of care. Therefore, patient safety is the most significant outcome of medical device interoperability.
NEW QUESTION # 60
During which stage in a cloud computing adoption model would a SWOT analysis be used?
- A. Evaluation.
- B. Action.
- C. Follow-up.
- D. Planning.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A SWOT analysis is best used during the Planning stage of a cloud computing adoption model because it is a strategic tool intended to shape decisions before execution begins. In healthcare technology environments, moving to cloud services (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) requires early alignment of business goals, clinical priorities, risk tolerance, regulatory obligations, and technical readiness. SWOT supports that planning work by identifying internal strengths (e.g., strong governance, mature security program, skilled infrastructure team), internal weaknesses (e.g., legacy integrations, limited identity management maturity, bandwidth constraints), external opportunities (e.g., scalability for analytics, improved disaster recovery, vendor-managed security capabilities, faster deployment), and external threats (e.g., cybersecurity exposure, compliance risks, vendor lock-in, outages, data residency concerns).
These insights help leaders decide what to migrate first, what to keep on-premise, what controls must be strengthened, and how to structure vendor contracts and service-level expectations. In contrast, the Evaluation stage typically focuses on comparing solutions and validating requirements through assessments, proofs-of- concept, and cost/risk analysis. Action is the implementation and migration execution. Follow-up is optimization, monitoring, and continuous improvement after go-live. Because SWOT informs strategic direction and readiness planning, Planning is the correct stage.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Strategic plans include
- A. operational plans.
- B. policies and procedures.
- C. budget requests.
- D. financial projections.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A strategic plan defines an organization's long-term direction, priorities, and high-level goals, typically over a multi-year horizon. While it articulates mission alignment, competitive positioning, and major initiatives, it must also be translated into actionable steps. For this reason, strategic plans include or are supported by operational plans , which outline how the strategy will be executed in practice. Operational plans define timelines, responsibilities, resource allocation, performance metrics, and specific initiatives that move the organization toward its strategic objectives. In healthcare leadership and information systems governance, operational planning ensures that broad goals-such as digital transformation, quality improvement, or cost reduction-are implemented through concrete projects and workflows.
In contrast, budget requests and financial projections may support strategic planning but are financial management tools rather than core structural components of the strategic plan itself. Policies and procedures are detailed governance documents that guide daily operations; they support compliance and consistency but are not defining elements of a strategic plan.
Thus, operational plans are the key component that connects high-level strategy to day-to-day execution, making option A the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following systems provide physicians with patient safety checks such as maximum dose limit?
- A. Drug vocabulary.
- B. Clinical repository.
- C. Clinical decision support.
- D. Data warehouse.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clinical decision support (CDS) is the system capability that provides physicians with patient safety checks such as maximum dose limits, dose-range checking, allergy and drug-drug interaction alerts, duplicate therapy warnings, contraindication notifications, and guideline-based recommendations. These checks are triggered within the clinical workflow-often during computerized provider order entry (CPOE)-so that when a clinician selects a medication, dose, route, or frequency, the CDS engine evaluates the order against medication knowledge bases and patient-specific factors (age, weight, renal function, allergies, current meds).
If the intended dose exceeds safe thresholds or conflicts with patient parameters, CDS generates warnings or
"hard stops," helping prevent adverse drug events before the order is finalized.
A drug vocabulary (or medication terminology/knowledge base) supplies standardized medication identifiers and reference information, but by itself it does not deliver active, workflow-based safety checking; CDS uses that vocabulary as an input. A data warehouse supports analytics and reporting, typically retrospective, rather than real-time prescribing checks. A clinical repository stores clinical data for access and exchange; it does not inherently apply rules to interrupt unsafe ordering in real time. Therefore, the correct answer is Clinical decision support .
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following aspects of cloud computing has benefitted population health?
- A. Increased information sharing.
- B. Improved patient data privacy.
- C. Improved API interoperability.
- D. Increased data reliability.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Population health focuses on improving outcomes for groups of patients by identifying trends, care gaps, and risk factors across communities. The cloud's most direct contribution to this work is increased information sharing . Cloud-based platforms make it easier to aggregate and exchange data from multiple sources- hospitals, clinics, labs, public health agencies, registries, and sometimes patient-generated data-so analysts and care teams can view a more complete picture of a population. With shared, centralized (or federated) data services, organizations can support activities such as chronic disease registries, immunization tracking, outbreak monitoring, risk stratification, and care coordination across settings.
While API interoperability (option B) is important, it is best viewed as an enabling mechanism that supports sharing; the benefit to population health comes from the resulting ability to combine data and collaborate across organizations. Improved patient data privacy (option C) is not an inherent outcome of moving to cloud-privacy depends on governance, configuration, access controls, and compliance practices. Increased data reliability (option D) can be a benefit of mature cloud architectures (redundancy, backups), but reliability alone does not drive population-level insights unless data can be shared and analyzed across sources.
Therefore, the clearest population-health benefit is increased information sharing .
NEW QUESTION # 64
A consultant has been tasked to evaluate the intake process of the emergency department. Which of the following should the consultant do FIRST?
- A. Simulation.
- B. Workflow analysis.
- C. Benchmarking.
- D. Time study.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating an emergency department (ED) intake process is to understand how the work is currently performed, end-to-end, across people, tasks, information, and enabling technologies. Workflow analysis comes first because it establishes the "current state" process map: who performs each step (registration, triage, bed assignment), what information is collected, where delays occur, how handoffs happen, what systems are used (EHR, tracking board), and where rework or duplication exists. This aligns with health IT and process-improvement best practices emphasized in healthcare information and management contexts: you cannot accurately measure, simulate, or compare a process until you have clearly defined it.
A time study (measuring durations and wait times) is valuable, but it should be guided by the workflow map so the consultant measures the right segments and interprets delays correctly (e.g., delay due to staffing vs.
documentation bottlenecks). Simulation is typically performed after workflow and data collection to test
"what-if" changes (staffing models, fast-track pathways). Benchmarking is also later-stage because comparing to peers is only meaningful when the organization's process boundaries and definitions are consistent and well understood. Therefore, workflow analysis is the correct first action.
NEW QUESTION # 65
The ability to examine data from various sources and provide information on trends, risks, and financial progress is called
- A. decision support.
- B. data warehousing.
- C. Enterprise Transformation Language (ETL).
- D. data harvesting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is decision support because it refers to the capability to analyze data from multiple sources and transform it into meaningful information that supports informed decision-making. In healthcare information and management systems, decision support tools aggregate clinical, operational, and financial data to identify trends, assess risk, monitor quality indicators, and evaluate financial performance. These systems help leadership and clinicians make evidence-based decisions by providing dashboards, predictive analytics, performance metrics, and alerts.
While data warehousing (Option D) involves collecting and storing large volumes of structured data from different source systems into a centralized repository, it primarily supports storage and organization rather than direct analysis and interpretation. ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) processes are technical mechanisms used to move and prepare data for storage in a warehouse but do not themselves provide analytical insight.
Data harvesting generally refers to collecting data, often from external sources, and does not inherently include analytical interpretation.
In healthcare environments, decision support systems (DSS) are essential for quality improvement, risk management, population health initiatives, regulatory reporting, and financial oversight. By synthesizing multi-source data into actionable intelligence, decision support fulfills the function described in the question.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A balanced scorecard is used to provide visual representation of
- A. opportunities and limitations.
- B. organizational perception and values.
- C. monitoring and assessment.
- D. goals and performance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A balanced scorecard is a strategic management and performance measurement framework that visually represents an organization's goals and performance across multiple perspectives. Traditionally, it includes four domains: financial, customer (or patient), internal processes, and learning and growth. Rather than focusing solely on financial results, the balanced scorecard links strategic objectives to measurable indicators, allowing leaders to track whether operational activities align with long-term strategy.
In healthcare organizations, this might include measures such as patient satisfaction scores, clinical quality indicators, operational efficiency metrics, workforce development benchmarks, and financial sustainability targets. The balanced scorecard translates mission and vision into specific, quantifiable objectives and displays them in dashboards or scorecards that allow executives and managers to monitor progress at a glance.
Option A (monitoring and assessment) is partially true but too narrow; the balanced scorecard is broader than simple monitoring-it connects strategy to measurable outcomes. Option B resembles SWOT analysis (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats). Option C relates more to organizational culture and values statements.
Therefore, the balanced scorecard's primary purpose is to provide a structured, visual representation of strategic goals and organizational performance , making D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 67
......
Get Ready with CPHIMS Exam Dumps (2026): https://lead2pass.prep4sureexam.com/CPHIMS-dumps-torrent.html